libertyleia Posted February 16, 2014 Posted February 16, 2014 My husband and I are going through divorce finally. He walked out of our matrimonial flat 8 year ago and we had not seen or contacted each other since. He filed the writ of divorce based on more than 4 years of separation which I fully agree that it's high time that we officially part. But it came as a shock when he asked for 80% of the flat which we agreed on 50/50 when we decided to separate. He made the claim based on his cpf contributions. He had indeed paid 80% and I, 20%. But that was the only thing he paid throughout the years. During our marriage and after separation, he has never contributed a single cent in cash. I had single-handedly paid through my nose for the renovation loan, furnishing, utilities bills, groceries, home maintenance, conservancy charges, phone bills, cable tv subscription, air-con servicing, all the way to simple things like toilet rolls and meals. I had to even pay for his bills and gave him money whenever he asked for. I had stayed in our matrimonial flat for the last 10 years and had faithfully paid off all the bills and maintenance for the house. And after leaving for 8 years, he came back with a huge surprise asking for 80% of our flat that I had maintained for the last 10 years just becos he paid more in cpf. I seriously need sensible and legal advise. Please help. Thank you!
Tripz Posted February 16, 2014 Posted February 16, 2014 Assuming you aren't in the USA, based on your use of the word "flat", I don't know what your laws there are. However, I can say that here in the US, you'd be a divorce lawyers' wet dream, if your ex really expected to win that case. I don't really know, but damn, that's a long time and a lot of your own investment. I'd be shocked if anyone could actually legally and legitimately gain 80% of that. What judge or commissioner wouldn't laugh their ass off at the audacity? From a purely legal standpoint, I'm interested how this ultimately works out.
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