mj5150 Posted September 7, 2010 Posted September 7, 2010 OK, the wife and I split up. She moved out first and I a month or so later. She took the car and I took the truck. The car is being financed and I am the co-signer and the truck is paid off. Question is, should I be assisting her with the car payment now if I do not use it and she was the one who wanted to take it and knew how much the payments were each month? By the way I am still paying for the insurance on both vehicles as I get a good rate through my job and have it taken out of my pay. And should I be assisting with any repairs made to the car?
Author mj5150 Posted September 7, 2010 Author Posted September 7, 2010 just the usual differences, she moved out first and took the car am I still obligated to assist with the payments?
GorillaTheater Posted September 7, 2010 Posted September 7, 2010 just the usual differences, she moved out first and took the car am I still obligated to assist with the payments? In the absence of a separation agreement filed with the Court, I'd say no, you have no obligation to her. You do, however, still have an obligation to the lender and if neither one of you pay, both of you will take the credit hit.
hopesndreams Posted September 7, 2010 Posted September 7, 2010 Morally, maybe...depends on the circumstances of the divorce. Legally, no....not if there weren't any papers drawn up stipulating that you will pay for the vehicle.
Author mj5150 Posted September 7, 2010 Author Posted September 7, 2010 Good, thanks for the advice. She is trying to tell me that I should be but she took the car, she could have taken the truck. I already gave her $125 towards a $250 repair bill a couple weeks back that I probably shouldn't have either.
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