me003 Posted July 14, 2009 Posted July 14, 2009 My friend was telling me that she has been dating this guy and they recently had sex not sure how many times. (and yes, It is not me since I am not having any or dating anyone ATM) She says that he has trouble going a second round but is okay the next morning. She has been with older guys as old as 52 and she never experienced this. I told her that maybe since he has not dated anyone in a while that maybe they need to practice. I asked two of my XBFs and one said to drop him the other one that there are more important things in life that sex. My question is this, is should a blue pill be taken? Does it mean that its due to age? could it be that she doesn't do it for him? lack of practice? Why is there no 2nd round?
clv0116 Posted July 14, 2009 Posted July 14, 2009 How are her fellatio skills? Second round, not second date. Pay attention.
Thaddeus Posted July 14, 2009 Posted July 14, 2009 It's not surprising that over the age of, oh, 45 or so, it takes more time for a man to re-charge. It's got nothing whatsoever to do with her, it's just that a 45-year-old set of plumbing isn't as easily re-charged as, say, a 20-year-old set. And there are a million different ways a man can pleasure a woman. Even if a guy isn't able to go a full round 2, he has other tools at his disposal.
clv0116 Posted July 14, 2009 Posted July 14, 2009 My question is this, is should a blue pill be taken? Does it mean that its due to age? could it be that she doesn't do it for him? lack of practice? Why is there no 2nd round? If I'm getting it regularly (1-3 times a day, every day) then I'm the same, but unless they're hitting it like that something else is going on. Maybe it's a medical issue.
carhill Posted July 14, 2009 Posted July 14, 2009 Second round, not second date. Pay attention. LOL, I'll try a different approach... OP, how about she talk with him about it? If he can stick his penis in her one time, he can talk about what she wants and what he wants sexually
bac Posted July 15, 2009 Posted July 15, 2009 My question is this, is should a blue pill be taken? Does it mean that its due to age? could it be that she doesn't do it for him? lack of practice? Why is there no 2nd round? All stuff that I want to say is just a generalization. It does not mean that every man in 40-50s is the same. It just means that some men in 40s are this way. There is no reason to take a pill if he can do the first round. For example, my old guy wanted to have sex once per 5 months but he did not want to take a pill. He just enjoyed to masturbate watching computer on regular basis. It is OK in this age group, especially if men are married or attached. Of course, it is due to age, but this guy is really doing great for his age. Old men usually do their best at the begining of a relationship. No, it is not because of her. When the men get married girls in 20s, there is little sex anyway after 1 yr and longer. Lack of practice makes it worse. It is called 'use or lose'. It means that when an old guy only masturbates for many yrs without regular sex with a real female, he loses his ability to do it with a female on regular basis. But he can do females when it feels new to him like one-night stand or a short relationship. Why there is no second round? He is doing his best now. In several months there might not be even first round, if he is an average white male. Your expectations about males in 40s are high. But most guys before 32 can do the job.
motive2002 Posted July 16, 2009 Posted July 16, 2009 I haven't done a second round since in my teens I think.. however that's because the first round is kind of like a marathon. Takes me a long time to get the first one to begin with.. err that's what I'm trying to say. Everyone is different.
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