Guest Posted March 25, 2007 Posted March 25, 2007 Consider a man who's been in a dead marriage for many years--dead marriage meaning there's no love, no intimacy/sex for many years. For whatever reason he stayed in the marriage and never had extramarital affairs (for moral reason perhaps). What is this man's libido like? Does it diminish to near 0 because of the lack of stimulations, or is it suppressed so much that some day it might be in full play if he meets someone attracting him like no others did? In short, I guess I'm curious to know: what's the effect of a long, loveless and sexless marriage on a man, who has no alternative to satisfy his sexual desire?
Topper Posted March 27, 2007 Posted March 27, 2007 Lots and Lots and a lot more masturbation, then for good measure you wack off some more.
Guest Posted March 28, 2007 Posted March 28, 2007 Lots and Lots and a lot more masturbation, then for good measure you wack off some more. Topper-LOL! But, can't imagine he has enough opportunities, since his wife sleeps on the same bed with him. He has to do that without her presence (at least if I were a man that's what I would do). And if this man has endured this marriage from his 20's/30's to 50's/60's, will he have essentially ceased to be a "man"? How hard is it for a man?
Recommended Posts